Question Number 166554 by cortano1 last updated on 22/Feb/22
$$\:\:\:\int_{−\infty} ^{\infty} \mathrm{sin}\:\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\pi\mathrm{x}\left(\mathrm{x}+\mathrm{1}\right)\right)\:\mathrm{cos}\:\left(\pi\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)\:\mathrm{dx}=? \\ $$