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solve-1-iz-1-iz-n-1-itan-1-itan-with-pi-2-lt-lt-pi-2-




Question Number 34673 by math khazana by abdo last updated on 09/May/18
solve (((1+iz)/(1−iz)))^n  = ((1+itanα)/(1−itanα))  with −(π/2)<α<(π/2)
$${solve}\:\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}+{iz}}{\mathrm{1}−{iz}}\right)^{{n}} \:=\:\frac{\mathrm{1}+{itan}\alpha}{\mathrm{1}−{itan}\alpha}\:\:{with}\:−\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}<\alpha<\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$

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