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Suppose-that-the-greatest-common-divisor-of-the-positive-integers-a-b-and-c-is-1-and-ab-a-b-c-Prove-that-a-b-is-a-perfect-square-




Question Number 119657 by bemath last updated on 26/Oct/20
Suppose that the greatest common divisor of  the positive integers a,b and c is 1 and  ((ab)/(a−b)) = c . Prove that a−b is a  perfect square
Supposethatthegreatestcommondivisorofthepositiveintegersa,bandcis1andabab=c.Provethatabisaperfectsquare
Commented by som(math1967) last updated on 26/Oct/20
I think a−b=1 is a perfect square  If a,b both odd then a−b=even  ∴((ab)/(a−b))∉Z [but c∈Z]  if one of a,b even and other  is odd ((ab)/(a−b))∈Z only a−b=1  [G.C.D of a,b,c is 1]  so a−b perfect square.
Ithinkab=1isaperfectsquareIfa,bbothoddthenab=evenababZ[butcZ]ifoneofa,bevenandotherisoddababZonlyab=1[G.C.Dofa,b,cis1]soabperfectsquare.
Commented by bemath last updated on 26/Oct/20
yes
yes
Answered by 1549442205PVT last updated on 26/Oct/20
Supoose a,b,c∈N^(∗ ) .From the hypothesis  we have ((ab)/(a−b)) = c⇔((a(b−a)+a^2 )/(a−b))=c  ⇒−a+(a^2 /(a−b))=c⇒(a−b)(a+c)=a^2 (★)  Suppose gcd(a−b,a+c)=d.Then   { ((a−b=md)),((a+c=nd)) :} (∗)with gcd(m,n)=1(d,m,n∈N^∗ )  (★)⇒a^2 =mnd^2 ⇒mn=((a/d))^2 =p^2 (p∈N^∗ )  and a^2 =(pd)^2 ⇒a=pd,mn=p^2 (1)  Since m,n are coprime ,from (1)we infer  there esixts u,v∈N^∗ so that  m=u^2 ,n=v^2 .Hence,from  (1) and (∗)we infer a⋮d, b⋮d,c⋮d  ,but by the hypothesis gcd(a,b,c)=1  ⇒d=1,so a−b=md=u^2 .Thus,a−b is  perfect square (q.e.d)
Supoosea,b,cN.Fromthehypothesiswehaveabab=ca(ba)+a2ab=ca+a2ab=c(ab)(a+c)=a2()Supposegcd(ab,a+c)=d.Then{ab=mda+c=nd()withgcd(m,n)=1(d,m,nN)()a2=mnd2mn=(ad)2=p2(pN)anda2=(pd)2a=pd,mn=p2(1)Sincem,narecoprime,from(1)weinferthereesixtsu,vNsothatm=u2,n=v2.Hence,from(1)and()weinferad,bd,cd,butbythehypothesisgcd(a,b,c)=1d=1,soab=md=u2.Thus,abisperfectsquare(q.e.d)

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