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use-lagranges-mean-value-theorem-to-prove-that-x-lt-sin-1-x-lt-x-1-x-2-0-lt-x-lt-1-




Question Number 25655 by rita1608 last updated on 12/Dec/17
use lagranges mean value theorem to  prove that   x<sin^(−1) x<(x/( (√(1−x^2 )))),0<x<1.
$${use}\:{lagranges}\:{mean}\:{value}\:{theorem}\:{to} \\ $$$${prove}\:{that}\: \\ $$$${x}<{sin}^{−\mathrm{1}} {x}<\frac{{x}}{\:\sqrt{\mathrm{1}−{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }},\mathrm{0}<{x}<\mathrm{1}. \\ $$

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