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Question Number 126701 by Eric002 last updated on 23/Dec/20
use right triangles to explain  why cos^(−1) (x)+sin^(−1) (x)=π/2
userighttrianglestoexplainwhycos1(x)+sin1(x)=π/2
Answered by ebi last updated on 23/Dec/20
  let sin^(−1) (x)=θ, then x=sin θ  sin θ=cos((π/2)−θ)  cos^(−1) (x)=(π/2)−θ  cos^(−1) (x)=(π/2)−sin^(−1) (x)  cos^(−1) (x)+sin^(−1) (x)=(π/2)
letsin1(x)=θ,thenx=sinθsinθ=cos(π2θ)cos1(x)=π2θcos1(x)=π2sin1(x)cos1(x)+sin1(x)=π2
Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 24/Dec/20
let f(x)=arcosx +arcsinx−(π/2)  ∀ x∈[−1,1]  f^′ (x)=−(1/( (√(1−x^2 ))))+(1/( (√(1−x^2 ))))=0 ⇒f(x)=c  f(0)=(π/2)−(π/2)=0 ⇒∀x∈[−1,1]  f(x)=0 ⇒arcosx +arcsinx=(π/2)
letf(x)=arcosx+arcsinxπ2x[1,1]f(x)=11x2+11x2=0f(x)=cf(0)=π2π2=0x[1,1]f(x)=0arcosx+arcsinx=π2

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