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y-ln-y-x-1-dx-xdy-0-




Question Number 126076 by liberty last updated on 17/Dec/20
   y(ln ((y/x))+1)dx−xdy = 0
$$\:\:\:{y}\left(\mathrm{ln}\:\left(\frac{{y}}{{x}}\right)+\mathrm{1}\right){dx}−{xdy}\:=\:\mathrm{0} \\ $$
Answered by benjo_mathlover last updated on 17/Dec/20

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