If-0-pi-1-a-b-cos-x-dx-a-gt-0-is-equal-to-pi-a-2-b-2-then-0-pi-1-a-b-cos-x-2-dx- Tinku Tara June 14, 2023 None 0 Comments FacebookTweetPin Question Number 64267 by Chi Mes Try last updated on 16/Jul/19 If∫π01a+bcosxdx,a>0isequaltoπa2−b2,then∫π01(a+bcosx)2dx= Commented by Prithwish sen last updated on 16/Jul/19 ∫0πdda[1a+bcosx]dx=ddaπa2−b2∫0πdx(1+cosx)2=aπ(a2−b2)32pleasecheck. Answered by Tanmay chaudhury last updated on 16/Jul/19 ∫0πdxa(sin2x2+cos2x2)+b(cos2x2−sin2x2)∫0πdx(a+b)cos2x2+(a−b)sin2x2∫0πsec2x2(a+b)+(a−b)tan2x21a−b∫0πsec2x2dx(a+ba−b)2+tan2x2p=tanx2dpdx=sec2x2×121a−b∫0∞2dp(a+ba−b)2+p22a−b×1a+ba−b∣tan−1(pa+ba−b)∣0∞=2a2−b2×[tan−1(∞)]=πa2−b2I(a,b)=∫0πdxa+bcosx=πa2−b2dIda=∫0π∂∂a(1a+bcosx)dx=π∂∂a{(a2−b2)−12}dIda=∫0π−1(a+bcosx)2×(1+0)dx=−π2×(a2−b2)−32×2aso∫0π−dx(a+bcosx)2=−πa(a2−b2)32so∫0πdx(a+bcosx)2=πa(a2−b2)32Tanmay16.07.19 Terms of Service Privacy Policy Contact: info@tinkutara.com FacebookTweetPin Post navigation Previous Previous post: If-log-2-x-1-e-x-1-dx-pi-6-then-x-Next Next post: lim-n-1-99-2-99-n-99-n-100- Leave a Reply Cancel replyYour email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *Comment * Name * Save my name, email, and website in this browser for the next time I comment.