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If-I-n-0-pi-4-tan-n-x-dx-n-N-then-I-n-2-I-n-




Question Number 69734 by mhmd last updated on 27/Sep/19
If I_n = ∫_(0 ) ^(π/4) tan^n x dx, n ∈ N, then I_(n+2) +I_n =
IfIn=π/40tannxdx,nN,thenIn+2+In=
Commented by mathmax by abdo last updated on 16/Oct/19
I_(n+2) +I_n =∫_0 ^(π/4) (tan^(n+2) x+tan^n x)dx =∫_0 ^(π/4) tan^n x(1+tan^2 x)dx  =[(1/(n+1))tan^(n+1) x]_0 ^(π/4) =(1/(n+1))
In+2+In=0π4(tann+2x+tannx)dx=0π4tannx(1+tan2x)dx=[1n+1tann+1x]0π4=1n+1

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