If-p-is-nearly-equal-to-q-and-n-gt-1-such-that-n-1-p-n-1-q-n-1-p-n-1-q-p-q-k-then-the-value-of-k-is-

Tinku Tara June 14, 2023 None 0 Comments

Question Number 63915 by gunawan last updated on 11/Jul/19

If p is nearly equal to q and n > 1, such that (((n+1)p+(n−1)q)/((n−1)p+(n+1)q)) = ((p/q))^k , then the value of k is

$$\mathrm{If}\:{p}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{nearly}\:\mathrm{equal}\:\:\mathrm{to}\:{q}\:\:\mathrm{and}\:\:{n}\:>\:\mathrm{1},\:\mathrm{such} \\ $$$$\mathrm{that}\:\frac{\left({n}+\mathrm{1}\right){p}+\left({n}−\mathrm{1}\right){q}}{\left({n}−\mathrm{1}\right){p}+\left({n}+\mathrm{1}\right){q}}\:=\:\left(\frac{{p}}{{q}}\right)^{{k}} ,\:\mathrm{then}\:\mathrm{the} \\ $$$$\mathrm{value}\:\mathrm{of}\:{k}\:\mathrm{is} \\ $$

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