If-p-is-nearly-equal-to-q-and-n-gt-1-such-that-n-1-p-n-1-q-n-1-p-n-1-q-p-q-k-then-the-value-of-k-is-

Question Number 63915 by gunawan last updated on 11/Jul/19

If p is nearly equal to q and n > 1, such

that \frac{(n + 1) p + (n - 1) q}{(n - 1) p + (n + 1) q} = {(\frac{p}{q})}^{k}, then the

value of k is