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Question Number 90629 by Josephbaraka@gmail.com last updated on 25/Apr/20
If   sin^(−1) (1−x)−2 sin^(−1) x = (π/2), then x=
Ifsin1(1x)2sin1x=π2,thenx=
Commented by jagoll last updated on 25/Apr/20
let sin^(−1) (1−x) = y  1−x = sin y ⇒x = 1−sin y  2sin^(−1) (x) = p ⇒x = sin ((p/2))  ⇒cos (y−p) = 0  cos y cos p + sin y sin p = 0  (√(2x−x^2 )) (1−2x^2 ) = (x−1)(2x(√(1−x^2 )))
letsin1(1x)=y1x=sinyx=1siny2sin1(x)=px=sin(p2)cos(yp)=0cosycosp+sinysinp=02xx2(12x2)=(x1)(2x1x2)
Answered by TANMAY PANACEA. last updated on 25/Apr/20
sin^(−1) (1−x)=(π/2)+2sin^(−1) x  sin(sin^(−1) (1−x))=sin((π/2)+2sin^(−1) x)  1−x=cos(2sin^(−1) x)  sinθ=x   so    cos2θ=2sin^2 θ−1=2x^2 −1  1−x=2x^2 −1  2x^2 +x−2=0  x=((−1±(√(1+16)))/4)=((−1±(√(17)))/4)
sin1(1x)=π2+2sin1xsin(sin1(1x))=sin(π2+2sin1x)1x=cos(2sin1x)sinθ=xsocos2θ=2sin2θ1=2x211x=2x212x2+x2=0x=1±1+164=1±174

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