Question Number 54422 by gunawan last updated on 03/Feb/19

Commented by ajfour last updated on 03/Feb/19

Commented by ajfour last updated on 03/Feb/19

Commented by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 03/Feb/19

Commented by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 03/Feb/19
![taking the help of drawing of sir Ajfour alternative proof... draw DK∣∣ CF ((BD)/(DC))=((BK)/(KF)) [since DK∣∣CF] ((BD)/(BC))=((BK)/(BF))=(1/2) so KD=(1/2)FC △DKE and △AEF <DEK=<AEF [vertically opposite angle] AE=ED given <KDE=<EAF[alternate angle] △s are congurent... so KD=AF=x (as per picture) AC=AF+FC=x+2x=3x so ((AF)/(AC))=(x/(3x))=(1/3)](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q54446.png)
Answered by mr W last updated on 03/Feb/19

Commented by ajfour last updated on 03/Feb/19

Commented by mr W last updated on 03/Feb/19

Commented by gunawan last updated on 05/Feb/19
