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Question-195491




Question Number 195491 by sonukgindia last updated on 03/Aug/23
Answered by aleks041103 last updated on 03/Aug/23
obviously x_n =1 for āˆ€nāˆˆN  ā‡’x_n ā†’1
$${obviously}\:{x}_{{n}} =\mathrm{1}\:{for}\:\forall{n}\in\mathbb{N} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow{x}_{{n}} \rightarrow\mathrm{1} \\ $$

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