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Question-195540




Question Number 195540 by 073 last updated on 04/Aug/23
Commented by Frix last updated on 04/Aug/23
i) 1  ii) 1  iii) 1
$$\left.{i}\right)\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$\left.{ii}\right)\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$\left.{iii}\right)\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$
Commented by 073 last updated on 04/Aug/23
prove please?
$$\mathrm{prove}\:\mathrm{please}? \\ $$
Answered by MM42 last updated on 05/Aug/23
lnΩ=lim_(x→0^+ )  ((lnx)/(1/x))  =^(hop)   lim_(x→0^+ )   ((1/x)/(−(1/x^2 ))) =0⇒Ω=1  the rest is similar  to the same metod
$${ln}\Omega={lim}_{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}^{+} } \:\frac{{lnx}}{\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}}}\:\:\overset{{hop}} {=}\:\:{lim}_{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}^{+} } \:\:\frac{\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}}}{−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }}\:=\mathrm{0}\Rightarrow\Omega=\mathrm{1} \\ $$$${the}\:{rest}\:{is}\:{similar}\:\:{to}\:{the}\:{same}\:{metod} \\ $$

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