Question Number 201149 by Mingma last updated on 30/Nov/23
Answered by witcher3 last updated on 03/Dec/23
$$\mathrm{x}=\mathrm{n}\in\mathbb{N}\:\mathrm{y}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{n}},\mathrm{z}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{n}},\mathrm{n}\geqslant\mathrm{2} \\ $$$$\forall\mathrm{n}\in\mathbb{N}−\left\{\mathrm{0},\mathrm{1}\right\}\:\:\left(\mathrm{n},\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{n}},\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{n}}\right)\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{solution} \\ $$$$ \\ $$