Menu Close

Question-201355




Question Number 201355 by MrGHK last updated on 05/Dec/23
Answered by witcher3 last updated on 05/Dec/23
=∫_0 ^1 ∫_0 ^1 ((tan^(−1) (xy)y)/((xy+1)(y+1)))dxdy can be solved
$$=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \frac{\mathrm{tan}^{−\mathrm{1}} \left(\mathrm{xy}\right)\mathrm{y}}{\left(\mathrm{xy}+\mathrm{1}\right)\left(\mathrm{y}+\mathrm{1}\right)}\mathrm{dxdy}\:\mathrm{can}\:\mathrm{be}\:\mathrm{solved}\: \\ $$

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *