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Question Number 206273 by EmGent last updated on 10/Apr/24
Does anyone know how this works ?    I have dψ = (x^2 -cy^2 )dy    And my physics teacher says it is (or can  be) a harmonic function (Δψ = 0)  Can anyone explain ?
Doesanyoneknowhowthisworks?Ihavedψ=(x2cy2)dyAndmyphysicsteachersaysitis(orcanbe)aharmonicfunction(Δψ=0)Cananyoneexplain?
Answered by aleks041103 last updated on 11/Apr/24
Since ∃dψ, then  dψ = (∂ψ/∂x)dx + (∂ψ/∂y)dy = (x^2 −cy^2 )dy  ⇒ { ((∂_x ψ = 0)),((∂_y ψ = x^2 −cy^2 )) :}  it is obvious that ∂_x ψ,∂_y ψ are continuous.  ⇒ψ∈C^1   Also it is easily seen that ∃∂_x ^( 2) ψ,∂_x ∂_y ψ,∂_y ∂_x ψ,∂_y ^( 2) ψ.  So, ψ is twice differentiable and is once  continously differentiable.  Therefore Schwartz rule applies:  (∂^2 ψ/(∂x∂y)) = (∂^2 ψ/(∂y∂x))  BUT  (∂^2 ψ/(∂x∂y)) = (∂/∂x)((∂ψ/∂y))=(∂/∂x)(x^2 −cy^2 )=2x  (∂^2 ψ/(∂y∂x)) = (∂/∂y)((∂ψ/∂x))=(∂/∂y)(0)=0  BUT  2x≠0  ⇒ ∄ψ: dψ=(x^2 −cy^2 )dy    Therefore, such ψ cannot be harmonic,  since such ψ doesn′t exist.
Sincedψ,thendψ=ψxdx+ψydy=(x2cy2)dy{xψ=0yψ=x2cy2itisobviousthatxψ,yψarecontinuous.ψC1Alsoitiseasilyseenthatx2ψ,xyψ,yxψ,y2ψ.So,ψistwicedifferentiableandisoncecontinouslydifferentiable.ThereforeSchwartzruleapplies:2ψxy=2ψyxBUT2ψxy=x(ψy)=x(x2cy2)=2x2ψyx=y(ψx)=y(0)=0BUT2x0ψ:dψ=(x2cy2)dyTherefore,suchψcannotbeharmonic,sincesuchψdoesntexist.

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