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Question-206869




Question Number 206869 by universe last updated on 28/Apr/24
Commented by Frix last updated on 28/Apr/24
Answer is e^a_1  −1 for a_1 ∈R\{0}
$$\mathrm{Answer}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{e}^{{a}_{\mathrm{1}} } −\mathrm{1}\:\mathrm{for}\:{a}_{\mathrm{1}} \in\mathbb{R}\backslash\left\{\mathrm{0}\right\} \\ $$
Commented by universe last updated on 28/Apr/24
how ?? can you share your approch
$${how}\:??\:{can}\:{you}\:{share}\:{your}\:{approch} \\ $$

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