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Question Number 207442 by York12 last updated on 15/May/24
If y=f(x), (d^2 x/dy^2 )=e^(y+1) , and the tangent line to the curve of the function f(x) on the point  (x_1 ,−1) is paralel to the straight line g(x)=x−3, then find f′(x).
Ify=f(x),d2xdy2=ey+1,andthetangentlinetothecurveofthefunctionf(x)onthepoint(x1,1)isparaleltothestraightlineg(x)=x3,thenfindf(x).
Commented by York12 last updated on 15/May/24
The solution of that question was as follows but I do not understand particular things  he said since (d^2 x/dy^2 )=e^(y+1)  ⇒^(By integrating both sides ) ((d(x))/(d(y)))=e^(y+1) +c  What I don′t understand here is to respect to what  he integrated both sides !  I know when I have something like for example  3y^2 ×((d(y))/(d(x)))=2x+1 ⇔3y^2 ×d(y)=(2x+1)d(x)  In this case we can integrate both sides  ∫3y^2  d(y)=∫(2x+1)d(x)⇔y^3 =x^2 +x+c  I do not understand how this process can be applied to the problem above  after this step he did something seems wrong  he said that since ((d(y))/(d(x)))=The slope of the tangent=1=((d(x))/(d(y)))  he dealt with them as if they are variables divided by each other  he used that in ((d(x))/(d(y)))=e^(y+1) +c((d(x))/(d(y)))=e^(y+1) +c ⇒1=e^0 +c⇒c=0  ∴((d(x))/(d(y)))=e^(y+1) , after that he did the same strange thinh  ((d(y))/(d(x)))=(1/e^(y+1) )  ⇒(Which is strangely true)  I would be thanfull for anyone who can explain that , thanks in advance
ThesolutionofthatquestionwasasfollowsbutIdonotunderstandparticularthingshesaidsinced2xdy2=ey+1Byintegratingbothsidesd(x)d(y)=ey+1+cWhatIdontunderstandhereistorespecttowhatheintegratedbothsides!IknowwhenIhavesomethinglikeforexample3y2×d(y)d(x)=2x+13y2×d(y)=(2x+1)d(x)Inthiscasewecanintegratebothsides3y2d(y)=(2x+1)d(x)y3=x2+x+cIdonotunderstandhowthisprocesscanbeappliedtotheproblemaboveafterthisstephedidsomethingseemswronghesaidthatsinced(y)d(x)=Theslopeofthetangent=1=d(x)d(y)hedealtwiththemasiftheyarevariablesdividedbyeachotherheusedthatind(x)d(y)=ey+1+cd(x)d(y)=ey+1+c1=e0+cc=0d(x)d(y)=ey+1,afterthathedidthesamestrangethinhd(y)d(x)=1ey+1(Whichisstrangelytrue)Iwouldbethanfullforanyonewhocanexplainthat,thanksinadvance
Commented by A5T last updated on 15/May/24
y=f(x), f(x_1 )=−1 ;f^′ (x_1 )=1  (d/dy)((dx/dy))=e^(y+1) .  Assume x has been represented as a function   of y⇒x=f(y); then you can differentiate  taking x as a function of y.  x=f(y)⇒(dx/dy)=f^′ (y)⇒(d/dy)((dx/dy))=f^(′′) y=e^(y+1)   ∫∫f′′y=e^(y+1) +cy+k=f(y)  ⇒x=f(y)=e^(y+1) +cy+k⇒(dx/dy)=e^(y+1) +c  ⇒(dy/dx)=(1/(e^(y+1) +c));  (dy/dx)=1 when y=−1⇒(1/(1+c))=1⇒c=0  ⇒x=e^(y+1) +k⇒y=ln(x−k)−1; k=x_1 −1
y=f(x),f(x1)=1;f(x1)=1ddy(dxdy)=ey+1.Assumexhasbeenrepresentedasafunctionofyx=f(y);thenyoucandifferentiatetakingxasafunctionofy.x=f(y)dxdy=f(y)ddy(dxdy)=fy=ey+1fy=ey+1+cy+k=f(y)x=f(y)=ey+1+cy+kdxdy=ey+1+cdydx=1ey+1+c;dydx=1wheny=111+c=1c=0x=ey+1+ky=ln(xk)1;k=x11
Commented by York12 last updated on 15/May/24
thank you sir
thankyousir
Answered by mr W last updated on 15/May/24
(d^2 x/dy^2 )=(d/dy)((dx/dy))=e^(y+1)   ⇒(dx/dy)=e^(y+1) +C_1   ⇒x=e^(y+1) +C_1 y+C_2   at (x_1 , −1):  (dx/dy)∣_(y=−1) =e^(−1+1) +C_1 =^! 1 ⇒C_1 =0  x_1 =e^(−1+1) +C_2  ⇒C_2 =x_1 −1  ⇒x=e^(y+1) +x_1 −1  ⇒y=ln (x−x_1 +1)−1=f(x)  ⇒f′(x)=(1/(x−x_1 +1))
d2xdy2=ddy(dxdy)=ey+1dxdy=ey+1+C1x=ey+1+C1y+C2at(x1,1):dxdyy=1=e1+1+C1=!1C1=0x1=e1+1+C2C2=x11x=ey+1+x11y=ln(xx1+1)1=f(x)f(x)=1xx1+1
Commented by York12 last updated on 15/May/24
Really , Really appreciate it
Really,Reallyappreciateit

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