Question Number 207924 by AliJumaa last updated on 31/May/24
$$\int{f}\left({x}\right){g}\left({x}\right){dx}=\underset{{n}=\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\:\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{n}} \:\underset{{h}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}} {\mathrm{lim}}\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{h}^{{n}} }\:\underset{{i}={o}} {\overset{{n}} {\sum}}\left[\:\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{i}} \left(\frac{{n}!}{{i}!\left({n}−{i}\right)!}\right){f}\left({x}+\left({n}−{i}\right){h}\right)\right]\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}!}\underset{{a}} {\overset{{x}} {\int}}\left({x}−{t}\right)^{{n}} {g}\left({t}\right){dt}\: \\ $$$${prove}\:{that}\:{right} \\ $$$${its}\:{a}\:{relation}\:{that}\:{i}\:{have}\:{derrived} \\ $$