Question Number 209166 by Tawa11 last updated on 02/Jul/24
Answered by mr W last updated on 02/Jul/24
$$\left({a}\right) \\ $$$${p}=\left(\frac{\mathrm{3}}{\mathrm{4}}\right)^{\mathrm{3}} =\mathrm{0}.\mathrm{42} \\ $$$$\left({b}\right) \\ $$$${p}={C}_{\mathrm{2}} ^{\mathrm{3}} \left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} \left(\frac{\mathrm{3}}{\mathrm{4}}\right)=\mathrm{0}.\mathrm{15} \\ $$
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 02/Jul/24
$$\mathrm{Thanks}\:\mathrm{sir}. \\ $$