Question Number 211857 by Frix last updated on 22/Sep/24
$$\underset{\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}\left(\frac{\mathrm{tan}^{−\mathrm{1}} \:{x}}{{x}}×\frac{\mathrm{ln}\:{x}}{{x}}\right){dx}=? \\ $$
Commented by ajfour last updated on 22/Sep/24
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