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Question-212464




Question Number 212464 by liuxinnan last updated on 14/Oct/24
Commented by liuxinnan last updated on 14/Oct/24
is it right
isitright
Answered by MrGaster last updated on 14/Oct/24
The above process is.  correct Let me explain ite  her.  Firstly given the functionalr  elationship y=f(x)and its inverse  function x=ϕ(y).  According to the   derivativeformula fore  invers functions we knowa  tht if y=f(x),then f′(x)=(dy/dx)Similarly for the inversec  funtion x=ϕ(y),we have   ϕ′(y)=(dx/dy)  Since x and y are in a reciprocali  relationshp as inversei  functons ,(dy/dx)and(dx/dy)are reciprocals of each   otherwhich means:  ϕ′(x)=(dx/dy)=(1/(dy/dx))=(1/(f′(x)))  Next,since  x=ϕ(y),we can substitute x with ϕ(y),thus obtaining:  ϕ′(y)=(1/(f′[ϕ(y)]))
Theaboveprocessis.correctLetmeexplainiteher.Firstlygiventhefunctionalrelationshipy=f(x)anditsinversefunctionx=φ(y).Accordingtothederivativeformulaforeinversfunctionsweknowathtify=f(x),thenf(x)=dydxSimilarlyfortheinversecfuntionx=φ(y),wehaveφ(y)=dxdySincexandyareinareciprocalirelationshpasinverseifunctons,dydxanddxdyarereciprocalsofeachotherwhichmeans:φ(x)=dxdy=1dydx=1f(x)Next,sincex=φ(y),wecansubstitutexwithφ(y),thusobtaining:φ(y)=1f[φ(y)]
Commented by liuxinnan last updated on 15/Oct/24
thanks
thanks

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