Question Number 212576 by MATHEMATICSAM last updated on 17/Oct/24
$$\mathrm{If}\:\frac{{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \:−\:{yz}}{{a}^{\mathrm{2}} \:−\:{bc}}\:=\:\frac{{y}^{\mathrm{2}} \:−\:{zx}}{{b}^{\mathrm{2}} \:−\:{ca}}\:=\:\frac{{z}^{\mathrm{2}} \:−\:{xy}}{{c}^{\mathrm{2}} \:−\:{ab}}\:\mathrm{then}\: \\ $$$$\mathrm{prove}\:\mathrm{that}\:\frac{{x}}{{a}}\:=\:\frac{{y}}{{b}}\:=\:\frac{{z}}{{c}}\:. \\ $$