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If-0-lt-x-lt-pi-2-then-prove-sin-cosx-lt-cosx-lt-cos-sinx-not-using-graph-




Question Number 213084 by MATHEMATICSAM last updated on 30/Oct/24
If 0 < x < (π/2) then prove  sin(cosx) < cosx < cos(sinx).  not using graph.
If0<x<π2thenprovesin(cosx)<cosx<cos(sinx).notusinggraph.
Answered by issac last updated on 30/Oct/24
x=acos(z) , z∈[0,1]  sin(cos(cos^(−1) (z)))<cos(cos^(−1) (z))<cos(sin(cos^(−1) (z)))  sin(z)<z<cos((√(1−z^2 )))  sin(z)<z<cos((√(1−z^2 ))) , z∈(0,1]  sin(z)≤z   ((sin(z))/z)≤1 →  ((d  )/dz)sin(z)≤1  cos(z)≤1 , for all z∈[0,1]  sin(z)≤z≤cos((√(1−z^2 )))  z≤cos((√(1−z^2 )))  e^z =1+z+(1/(2!))z^2 +(1/(3!))z^3 ..... (Tailer series)  Couchy−Schwartz Inequality  (a_1 z_1 +a_2 z_2 +.......a_n z_n )^2 ≤(a_1 ^2 +a_2 ^2 +...a_n ^2 )(z_1 ^2 +z_2 ^2 +...z_n ^2 )  (1+z+(1/(2!))z^2 +(1/(3!))z^3 .....)^2 ≤(1^2 +1^2 +((1/(2!)))^2 +((1/(3!)))^2 +...)(1^2 +z^2 +z^4 +....)  e^(2z) ≤((I_0 (2))/(1−z^2 )) , I_0 (2)≈2.2796....  I_ν (x) is Modified 1st Bessel function  e^z ≤((I_0 (2))/(1−(1/4)z^2 ))  →  e^z ≤((4∙I_0 (2))/(4−z^2 )) , z∈[0,1]  e^(iz) +e^(−iz) ≤((2I_0 (2))/((1/4)z^2 +1)) →  cos(z)≤((4∙I_0 (2))/(z^2 +4))  cos((√(1−z^2 )))≤((4I_0 (2))/(5−z^2 ))  z≤((4I_0 (2))/(5−z^2 )) → 5z−z^3 ≤4I_0 (2)  0≤z^3 −5z+4I_0 (2)  satisfy for all z∈[0,1]  Q.E.D
x=acos(z),z[0,1]sin(cos(cos1(z)))<cos(cos1(z))<cos(sin(cos1(z)))sin(z)<z<cos(1z2)sin(z)<z<cos(1z2),z(0,1]sin(z)zsin(z)z1ddzsin(z)1cos(z)1,forallz[0,1]sin(z)zcos(1z2)zcos(1z2)ez=1+z+12!z2+13!z3..(Tailerseries)CouchySchwartzInequality(a1z1+a2z2+.anzn)2(a12+a22+an2)(z12+z22+zn2)(1+z+12!z2+13!z3..)2(12+12+(12!)2+(13!)2+)(12+z2+z4+.)e2zI0(2)1z2,I0(2)2.2796.Iν(x)isModified1stBesselfunctionezI0(2)114z2ez4I0(2)4z2,z[0,1]eiz+eiz2I0(2)14z2+1cos(z)4I0(2)z2+4cos(1z2)4I0(2)5z2z4I0(2)5z25zz34I0(2)0z35z+4I0(2)satisfyforallz[0,1]Q.E.D
Commented by issac last updated on 30/Oct/24
I use Couchy−schwartz inequality  and Manipulated inequality  if A,B is positive and k is  positive  if A≤B ,  A+k≤B+k is true  So, I use that fact :)
IuseCouchyschwartzinequalityandManipulatedinequalityifA,BispositiveandkispositiveifAB,A+kB+kistrueSo,Iusethatfact:)
Answered by mr W last updated on 30/Oct/24
for 0<x<(π/2):  sin x<x ⇒cos (sin x)>cos x ✓  0<cos x<1<(π/2) ⇒sin (cos x)<cos x ✓
for0<x<π2:sinx<xcos(sinx)>cosx0<cosx<1<π2sin(cosx)<cosx
Commented by mr W last updated on 30/Oct/24
I use my brain only :)
Iusemybrainonly:)
Commented by Frix last updated on 31/Oct/24
It′s good you use your brain only because  brain rents had been raised lately.
Itsgoodyouuseyourbrainonlybecausebrainrentshadbeenraisedlately.
Commented by mr W last updated on 31/Oct/24
i′ve got a flat rate :)
ivegotaflatrate:)
Answered by MrGaster last updated on 30/Oct/24
sin(cos x)<cos x⇔sin(cos x)−cos x<0⇔2 cos(((cos x+(π/2)−x)/2))sin(((cos x−((π/2)−x))/2))<0⇔2 cos((π/4)+((x−cos x)/2))sin(((cos x+x−(π/2))/2))<0  cos x<cos(sin x)⇔cos x−cos(sin x)<0⇔−2 sin(((x+sin x)/2))sin(((x−sin x)/2))<0⇔2 sin(((x+sin x)/2))sin(((sin x−x)/2))>0  [Q.E.D]
sin(cosx)<cosxsin(cosx)cosx<02cos(cosx+π2x2)sin(cosx(π2x)2)<02cos(π4+xcosx2)sin(cosx+xπ22)<0cosx<cos(sinx)cosxcos(sinx)<02sin(x+sinx2)sin(xsinx2)<02sin(x+sinx2)sin(sinxx2)>0[Q.E.D]
Answered by Berbere last updated on 31/Oct/24
sin(x)≤x  cos(x)≤1⇒∫_0 ^x cos(t)≤∫_0 ^x 1dt⇒sin(x)≤x⇒sin(cos(x))≤cos(x)  cos(sin(x))>cos(x)  sin(x)<x by provious   cos decrease⇒cos(sin(x))≥cos(x)
sin(x)xcos(x)10xcos(t)0x1dtsin(x)xsin(cos(x))cos(x)cos(sin(x))>cos(x)sin(x)<xbyproviouscosdecreasecos(sin(x))cos(x)

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