Question Number 132356 by Raxreedoroid last updated on 13/Feb/21
$$\underset{{n}\rightarrow\infty} {\mathrm{lim}}\left(\frac{{x}^{{n}} }{{n}!}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}\left(\mathrm{ln}\:\mathrm{2}\right)^{{n}} }\right)=?\:,{x}\in\mathbb{R} \\ $$