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Question Number 18222 by Arnab Maiti last updated on 17/Jul/17
show that ∫_0 ^(π/4) ((x sinx)/(1+cos^2 x))dx=(π/4)
$$\mathrm{show}\:\mathrm{that}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}}} \frac{\mathrm{x}\:\mathrm{sinx}}{\mathrm{1}+\mathrm{cos}^{\mathrm{2}} \mathrm{x}}\mathrm{dx}=\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}} \\ $$
Commented by Arnab Maiti last updated on 17/Jul/17
please help with these questions.
$$\mathrm{please}\:\mathrm{help}\:\mathrm{with}\:\mathrm{these}\:\mathrm{questions}. \\ $$

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