Question Number 92790 by M±th+et+s last updated on 09/May/20
$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \left(\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}}−{tan}^{−\mathrm{1}} \left({x}\right)\right)\frac{{dx}}{\mathrm{1}−{x}^{\mathrm{2}} } \\ $$
0-1-pi-4-tan-1-x-dx-1-x-2-