Question Number 30089 by tawa tawa last updated on 16/Feb/18
$$\mathrm{prove}\:\mathrm{the}\:\mathrm{convergence}\:\mathrm{or}\:\mathrm{divergence}\:\mathrm{of}\:\:\:\:\left(\frac{\mathrm{n}\:−\:\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{n}}\right)_{\mathrm{n}\:=\:\mathrm{1}} ^{\infty} \\ $$