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Question-96712




Question Number 96712 by john santu last updated on 04/Jun/20
Answered by bobhans last updated on 04/Jun/20
since f(x) is defined on (0,+∞), from   { ((2a^2 +a+1=2(a+(1/4))^2 +(7/8)>0)),((3a^2 −4a+1=(3a−1)(a−1)>0)) :}  we get a<(1/3) ∪ a>1...(i)  since f(x) is a decreasing function  on (0, +∞) so 2a^2 +a+1 >3a^2 −4a+1  ⇒a^2 −5a < 0 , thus 0<a<5...(ii)  combining this with (i) we have   0<a<(1/3) ∪ 1<a<5
$$\mathrm{since}\:\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{defined}\:\mathrm{on}\:\left(\mathrm{0},+\infty\right),\:\mathrm{from} \\ $$$$\begin{cases}{\mathrm{2}{a}^{\mathrm{2}} +{a}+\mathrm{1}=\mathrm{2}\left({a}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} +\frac{\mathrm{7}}{\mathrm{8}}>\mathrm{0}}\\{\mathrm{3}{a}^{\mathrm{2}} −\mathrm{4}{a}+\mathrm{1}=\left(\mathrm{3}{a}−\mathrm{1}\right)\left({a}−\mathrm{1}\right)>\mathrm{0}}\end{cases} \\ $$$$\mathrm{we}\:\mathrm{get}\:{a}<\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{3}}\:\cup\:{a}>\mathrm{1}…\left({i}\right) \\ $$$${since}\:{f}\left({x}\right)\:{is}\:{a}\:{decreasing}\:{function} \\ $$$${on}\:\left(\mathrm{0},\:+\infty\right)\:\mathrm{so}\:\mathrm{2}{a}^{\mathrm{2}} +{a}+\mathrm{1}\:>\mathrm{3}{a}^{\mathrm{2}} −\mathrm{4}{a}+\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow{a}^{\mathrm{2}} −\mathrm{5}{a}\:<\:\mathrm{0}\:,\:\mathrm{thus}\:\mathrm{0}<{a}<\mathrm{5}…\left({ii}\right) \\ $$$${combining}\:{this}\:{with}\:\left({i}\right)\:\mathrm{we}\:\mathrm{have}\: \\ $$$$\mathrm{0}<{a}<\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{3}}\:\cup\:\mathrm{1}<{a}<\mathrm{5}\: \\ $$

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