Question Number 32276 by abdo imad last updated on 22/Mar/18
$${prove}\:{that}\:\sum_{{i}=\mathrm{1}} ^{{n}} \:\left(\prod_{{j}=\mathrm{0}} ^{{p}} \left({i}+{j}\right)\right)=\frac{{n}\left({n}+\mathrm{1}\right)\left({n}+\mathrm{2}\right)…\left({n}+{p}+\mathrm{1}\right)}{{p}+\mathrm{2}} \\ $$