Question Number 103278 by bachamohamed last updated on 13/Jul/20
$$\:\:\:\:\:\underset{\boldsymbol{{k}}=\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\boldsymbol{{k}}!\left(\boldsymbol{{k}}^{\mathrm{4}} +\boldsymbol{{k}}^{\mathrm{2}} +\mathrm{1}\right)}=? \\ $$
Commented by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 13/Jul/20
$$\mathrm{By}\:\mathrm{ratio}\:\mathrm{test}\:\mathrm{it}\:\mathrm{converges}\:\mathrm{sir}! \\ $$
Commented by bachamohamed last updated on 14/Jul/20
$$\mathrm{yes} \\ $$