Question Number 103480 by mohammad17 last updated on 15/Jul/20
$${if}\:{f}\left({x}\right)=\mid{x}−\mathrm{1}\:\:\:\:\:\:\mathrm{0}<{x}<\mathrm{1}\mid\:{solve}\:{in} \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$\left(\mathrm{1}\right){Fourier}\:{series}\:{of}\:{sines}\:{only}\:? \\ $$$$\left(\mathrm{2}\right)\:{Fourier}\:{series}\:{of}\:{cosines}\:? \\ $$