Question Number 107926 by mohammad17 last updated on 13/Aug/20
Answered by Aziztisffola last updated on 13/Aug/20
$$\mathrm{True} \\ $$
Answered by Aziztisffola last updated on 13/Aug/20
$$\mathrm{ker}\left({f}\right)\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{a}\:\mathrm{subgroup}\:\mathrm{of}\:\mathrm{G}\:\mathrm{not}\:\mathrm{of}\:\mathrm{H} \\ $$$$\:\mathrm{then}\:\mathrm{if}\:\mathrm{ker}\left({f}\right)=\left\{\mathrm{e}_{{G}} \right\}\:\Rightarrow\:{f}\:{is}\:\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{1} \\ $$