Menu Close

Q-by-using-fourier-series-prove-that-n-1-1-n-1-2n-1-3-3-32-




Question Number 174766 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 10/Aug/22
      Q:  by using fourier series,        prove  that :                š›€=Ī£_(n=1) ^āˆž (((āˆ’1)^( nāˆ’1) )/((2nāˆ’1 )^( 3) )) = (š›‘^( 3) /(32))             āˆ’āˆ’āˆ’āˆ’āˆ’āˆ’
$$ \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:{Q}:\:\:{by}\:{using}\:{fourier}\:{series}, \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:{prove}\:\:{that}\:: \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\boldsymbol{\Omega}=\underset{\boldsymbol{{n}}=\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\frac{\left(āˆ’\mathrm{1}\right)^{\:\boldsymbol{{n}}āˆ’\mathrm{1}} }{\left(\mathrm{2}\boldsymbol{{n}}āˆ’\mathrm{1}\:\right)^{\:\mathrm{3}} }\:=\:\frac{\boldsymbol{\pi}^{\:\mathrm{3}} }{\mathrm{32}} \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:āˆ’āˆ’āˆ’āˆ’āˆ’āˆ’ \\ $$

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *