Question Number 135572 by learner001 last updated on 14/Mar/21
$${does}\:{the}\:{sequence}\:\left\{{a}_{{n}} \right\}\:{defined}\:{by},\:{a}_{{n}} =\begin{cases}{\mathrm{0},\:{if}\:{n}\:{is}\:{odd}}\\{\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}},\:{if}\:{n}\:{is}\:{even}}\end{cases}\:\:\:{converge}. \\ $$
Answered by dhgt last updated on 05/May/21
