Question Number 110919 by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 31/Aug/20
$$\underset{{n}\rightarrow\infty} {\mathrm{lim}}\left(\underset{{r}=\mathrm{1}} {\overset{{n}} {\sum}}\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{3}^{{r}} {r}!}\left(\underset{{k}=\mathrm{1}} {\overset{{r}} {\prod}}\left(\mathrm{2}{k}−\mathrm{1}\right)\right)\right) \\ $$
Answered by mnjuly1970 last updated on 01/Sep/20
