Question Number 56847 by Ismael002 last updated on 25/Mar/19
$${d}\mathrm{2}{y}/{dx}\mathrm{2}={x}\mathrm{2}{y}=\mathrm{0} \\ $$
Commented by ajfour last updated on 25/Mar/19
$$\mathrm{do}\:\mathrm{you}\:\mathrm{mean} \\ $$$$\:\:\frac{\mathrm{d}^{\mathrm{2}} \mathrm{y}}{\mathrm{dx}^{\mathrm{2}} }−\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \mathrm{y}=\mathrm{0}\:\:? \\ $$
Commented by Ismael002 last updated on 25/Mar/19
$${yes} \\ $$