0-1-n-1-1-q-n-dq-

Question Number 136799 by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 26/Mar/21

$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \underset{{n}=\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\infty} {\prod}}\left(\mathrm{1}−{q}^{{n}} \right){dq} \\ $$