Question Number 8817 by sÁê< last updated on 30/Oct/16
$$\mathrm{If}\:{I}_{\mathrm{1}} =\underset{\:\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\mathrm{3}\pi} {\int}}\:{f}\:\left(\mathrm{cos}^{\mathrm{2}} {x}\right){dx}\:\mathrm{and}\:\:{I}_{\mathrm{2}} =\underset{\:\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\pi} {\int}}\:{f}\:\left(\mathrm{cos}^{\mathrm{2}} {x}\right){dx} \\ $$$$\mathrm{then} \\ $$
Commented by ridwan balatif last updated on 30/Oct/16
$$\mathrm{then}\:\mathrm{what}? \\ $$
Commented by prakash jain last updated on 30/Oct/16
$${I}_{\mathrm{1}} =\mathrm{3}{I}_{\mathrm{2}} ? \\ $$