Question Number 206869 by universe last updated on 28/Apr/24
Commented by Frix last updated on 28/Apr/24
$$\mathrm{Answer}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{e}^{{a}_{\mathrm{1}} } −\mathrm{1}\:\mathrm{for}\:{a}_{\mathrm{1}} \in\mathbb{R}\backslash\left\{\mathrm{0}\right\} \\ $$
Commented by universe last updated on 28/Apr/24
$${how}\:??\:{can}\:{you}\:{share}\:{your}\:{approch} \\ $$