Question Number 207924 by AliJumaa last updated on 31/May/24
![∫f(x)g(x)dx=Σ_(n=0) ^∞ (−1)^n lim_(h→0) (1/h^n ) Σ_(i=o) ^n [ (−1)^i (((n!)/(i!(n−i)!)))f(x+(n−i)h)] (1/(n!))∫_a ^x (x−t)^n g(t)dt prove that right its a relation that i have derrived](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q207924.png)
$$\int{f}\left({x}\right){g}\left({x}\right){dx}=\underset{{n}=\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\:\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{n}} \:\underset{{h}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}} {\mathrm{lim}}\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{h}^{{n}} }\:\underset{{i}={o}} {\overset{{n}} {\sum}}\left[\:\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{i}} \left(\frac{{n}!}{{i}!\left({n}−{i}\right)!}\right){f}\left({x}+\left({n}−{i}\right){h}\right)\right]\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}!}\underset{{a}} {\overset{{x}} {\int}}\left({x}−{t}\right)^{{n}} {g}\left({t}\right){dt}\: \\ $$$${prove}\:{that}\:{right} \\ $$$${its}\:{a}\:{relation}\:{that}\:{i}\:{have}\:{derrived} \\ $$