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Question-210542




Question Number 210542 by SANOGO last updated on 12/Aug/24
Commented by Rasheed.Sindhi last updated on 12/Aug/24
x+y+z=1⇒(x+y+z)^2 =1
$${x}+{y}+{z}=\mathrm{1}\Rightarrow\left({x}+{y}+{z}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} =\mathrm{1} \\ $$
Commented by Frix last updated on 12/Aug/24
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Answered by JuniorKepler last updated on 12/Aug/24
since (x + y +z) = 1  (x + y +z)^2  = 1^2                            = 1
$${since}\:\left({x}\:+\:{y}\:+{z}\right)\:=\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$\left({x}\:+\:{y}\:+{z}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} \:=\:\mathrm{1}^{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:=\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$

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