Question Number 72724 by rajesh4661kumar@gmail.com last updated on 01/Nov/19
Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 01/Nov/19
$$\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}<{x}_{\mathrm{1}} <{x}_{\mathrm{2}} <\pi\Rightarrow\mathrm{0}<\mid{cosx}_{\mathrm{2}} \mid<\mid{cosx}_{\mathrm{1}} \mid<\mathrm{1}\Rightarrow \\ $$$${log}\mid{cosx}_{\mathrm{2}} \mid<{log}\mid{cosx}_{\mathrm{1}} \mid \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$
Commented by Henri Boucatchou last updated on 02/Nov/19
$${You}\:\:{would}\:\:{have}\:\:{first}\:\:{correct}\:\:{the}\:\:{interval}\:{before}… \\ $$