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Question Number 214631 by issac last updated on 14/Dec/24
why ∫∫_∂D B^→ ∙da^→ =0  B^→  ia magnetic Field
$$\mathrm{why}\:\int\int_{\partial\mathrm{D}} \overset{\rightarrow} {\boldsymbol{\mathrm{B}}}\centerdot\mathrm{d}\overset{\rightarrow} {\boldsymbol{\mathrm{a}}}=\mathrm{0} \\ $$$$\overset{\rightarrow} {\boldsymbol{\mathrm{B}}}\:\mathrm{ia}\:\mathrm{magnetic}\:\mathrm{Field} \\ $$
Answered by MrGaster last updated on 24/Dec/24
∵▽.B^→ =0  ∴∫∫_∂D +B^→ ∙da^→ =∫∫∫_D 0 dv  ∴∫∫_∂D B^→ ∙da^→ =0
$$\because\bigtriangledown.\overset{\rightarrow} {{B}}=\mathrm{0} \\ $$$$\therefore\int\int_{\partial{D}} +\overset{\rightarrow} {{B}}\centerdot{d}\overset{\rightarrow} {{a}}=\int\int\int_{{D}} \mathrm{0}\:{d}\mathrm{v} \\ $$$$\therefore\int\int_{\partial{D}} \overset{\rightarrow} {{B}}\centerdot{d}\overset{\rightarrow} {{a}}=\mathrm{0} \\ $$

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