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Question-217640




Question Number 217640 by Tawa11 last updated on 17/Mar/25
Commented by mr W last updated on 17/Mar/25
F should also be given to get a  concrete result.
Fshouldalsobegiventogetaconcreteresult.
Answered by mahdipoor last updated on 17/Mar/25
for B  :   (ΣF=ma)   (→ ≡ +)  F−T_1 =M_1 a_1 =10a_1     (1)  for A :  T_2 =M_2 a_2 =5a_2      (2)  for C :  T_3 =M_3 a_3 =2a_3     (3)  for pully :  a^− =a_1   ,  { ((a^− +θ^(..) r=a_1 +θ^(..) r=a_2     (4))),((a^− −θ^(..) r=a_1 −θ^(..) r=a_3    (5))) :} (↻ ≡ +)  ΣF=ma^−  ⇒ T_1 −T_2 −T_3 =2a_1      (6)  ΣM^− =I^− θ^(..)  ⇒ (T_3 −T_2 )r=((mr^2 )/2)θ^(..)  ⇒T_3 −T_2 =rθ^(..)    (7)  7 unkown (3T+3a+θ^(..) r) and 7 eq ⇒  a_1 =...          a_2 =...           a_3 =...
forB:(ΣF=ma)(+)FT1=M1a1=10a1(1)forA:T2=M2a2=5a2(2)forC:T3=M3a3=2a3(3)forpully:a=a1,{a+θ..r=a1+θ..r=a2(4)aθ..r=a1θ..r=a3(5)(+)ΣF=maT1T2T3=2a1(6)ΣM=Iθ..(T3T2)r=mr22θ..T3T2=rθ..(7)7unkown(3T+3a+θ..r)and7eqa1=a2=a3=
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 17/Mar/25
Thanks sir.  I appreciate.
Thankssir.Iappreciate.
Answered by mr W last updated on 17/Mar/25
Commented by mr W last updated on 17/Mar/25
α=angular acc. of pulley (↶)  A_1 =acc. of M_1  and m  A_2 =acc. of M_2 =A_1 +αr  A_3 =acc. of M_3 =A_1 −αr    F_2 =M_2 A_2 =M_2 (A_1 +αr)  F_3 =M_3 A_3 =M_3 (A_1 −αr)  F−F_2 −F_3 =(M_1 +m)A_1   F=(M_1 +m)A_1 +M_2 (A_1 +αr)+M_3 (A_1 −αr)  ⇒(M_1 +m+M_2 +M_3 )A_1 +(M_2 −M_3 )αr=F   ...(i)    F_3 r−F_2 r=Iα=((mr^2 α)/2)  M_3 (A_1 −αr)−M_2 (A_1 +αr)=((mrα)/2)  ⇒(M_2 −M_3 )A_1 +(M_2 +M_3 +(m/2))αr=0   ...(ii)  from (ii):  αr=−(((M_2 −M_3 )A_1 )/((M_2 +M_3 +(m/2))))  this into (i):  [M_1 +m+M_2 +M_3 −(((M_2 −M_3 )^2 )/(M_2 +M_3 +(m/2)))]A_1 =F  ⇒A_1 =(F/(M_1 +m+M_2 +M_3 −(((M_2 −M_3 )^2 )/(M_2 +M_3 +(m/2)))))  ⇒A_2 =(1−((M_2 −M_3 )/(M_2 +M_3 +(m/2))))(F/(M_1 +m+M_2 +M_3 −(((M_2 −M_3 )^2 )/(M_2 +M_3 +(m/2)))))  ⇒A_3 =(1+((M_2 −M_3 )/(M_2 +M_3 +(m/2))))(F/(M_1 +m+M_2 +M_3 −(((M_2 −M_3 )^2 )/(M_2 +M_3 +(m/2)))))
α=angularacc.ofpulley()A1=acc.ofM1andmA2=acc.ofM2=A1+αrA3=acc.ofM3=A1αrF2=M2A2=M2(A1+αr)F3=M3A3=M3(A1αr)FF2F3=(M1+m)A1F=(M1+m)A1+M2(A1+αr)+M3(A1αr)(M1+m+M2+M3)A1+(M2M3)αr=F(i)F3rF2r=Iα=mr2α2M3(A1αr)M2(A1+αr)=mrα2(M2M3)A1+(M2+M3+m2)αr=0(ii)from(ii):αr=(M2M3)A1(M2+M3+m2)thisinto(i):[M1+m+M2+M3(M2M3)2M2+M3+m2]A1=FA1=FM1+m+M2+M3(M2M3)2M2+M3+m2A2=(1M2M3M2+M3+m2)FM1+m+M2+M3(M2M3)2M2+M3+m2A3=(1+M2M3M2+M3+m2)FM1+m+M2+M3(M2M3)2M2+M3+m2
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 17/Mar/25
Great sir.  Weldone.  I appreciate sir.
Greatsir.Weldone.Iappreciatesir.
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 17/Mar/25
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 17/Mar/25
Sir, why is it  (M + m)A_1   why not  mA_1 .  I am just asking to learn why sir.
Sir,whyisit(M+m)A1whynotmA1.Iamjustaskingtolearnwhysir.
Commented by mr W last updated on 17/Mar/25
m and M_1  have the same acc. A_1 ,  is this clear?  we have  F−F_1 =M_1 A_1      ...(i)  F_1 −F_2 −F_3 =mA_1    ..(ii)  is this clear?  we can also treat m and M_1  as one  object which has acc. A_1 , then we   have  F−F_2 −F_3 =(M_1 +m)A_1   certainly you can get the same by  adding (i)+(ii).
mandM1havethesameacc.A1,isthisclear?wehaveFF1=M1A1(i)F1F2F3=mA1..(ii)isthisclear?wecanalsotreatmandM1asoneobjectwhichhasacc.A1,thenwehaveFF2F3=(M1+m)A1certainlyyoucangetthesamebyadding(i)+(ii).
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 17/Mar/25
I understand now.  Thank you sir.
Iunderstandnow.Thankyousir.

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