Question Number 66168 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 10/Aug/19
$${prove}\:{without}\:{calculus}\:{that}\:\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:{cos}\left({x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right){dx}=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} {sin}\left({x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right){dx} \\ $$