Menu Close

Category: Algebra

Question-210127

Question Number 210127 by essaad last updated on 31/Jul/24 Answered by lepuissantcedricjunior last updated on 01/Aug/24 $$\int_{\mathrm{1}} ^{\mathrm{2}} \frac{\boldsymbol{{ln}}\left(\mathrm{1}+\boldsymbol{{x}}\right)−\boldsymbol{{lnx}}}{\boldsymbol{{x}}^{\mathrm{2}} }\boldsymbol{{dx}}=\int_{\mathrm{1}} ^{\mathrm{2}} \frac{\boldsymbol{{ln}}\left(\mathrm{1}+\boldsymbol{{x}}\right)}{\boldsymbol{{x}}^{\mathrm{2}} }\boldsymbol{{dx}}−\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{2}} \frac{\boldsymbol{{lnx}}}{\boldsymbol{{x}}^{\mathrm{2}}…