Menu Close

Category: Algebra

Question-22701

Question Number 22701 by selestian last updated on 22/Oct/17 Answered by ajfour last updated on 22/Oct/17 $${e}^{\left(\frac{\mathrm{sin}\:^{\mathrm{2}} {x}}{\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{sin}\:^{\mathrm{2}} {x}}\right)\mathrm{ln}\:\mathrm{2}} \:={e}^{\mathrm{ln}\:\mathrm{2}^{\mathrm{tan}\:^{\mathrm{2}} {x}} } \:=\mathrm{2}^{\mathrm{tan}\:^{\mathrm{2}} {x}} \