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Category: Geometry

Question-108626

Question Number 108626 by I want to learn more last updated on 18/Aug/20 Answered by Aziztisffola last updated on 18/Aug/20 $$\mathrm{A}_{\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\mathrm{circle}} =\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\pi\left(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{2}}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} =\frac{\pi\mathrm{a}^{\mathrm{2}} }{\mathrm{8}} \