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Category: Integration

Question-123034

Question Number 123034 by benjo_mathlover last updated on 21/Nov/20 Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 21/Nov/20 $$\chi\:=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:\frac{\mathrm{ln}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)}{\mathrm{1}+\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }\mathrm{dx}\:\:\Rightarrow\chi=_{\mathrm{x}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{t}}} \:\:\:−\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:\:\frac{−\mathrm{lnt}}{\mathrm{1}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{t}^{\mathrm{2}}…